Ok..before I sound really irresponsible (I'm not) let me explain:
My mare was out on a lease from 6/1/09- 3/25/10. There were no stallions on premise..only a freshly gelded colt...and as far as I know she wasn't around studs (but they could have exposed her without telling me).
She is a hefty girl already and does not get much exercise, but her belly is abnormally large. Her udders are getting bigger, as well as her milk veins. However, she had her first and only foal in June of 2008 (not an accident foal) and was leaking milk all of 2009. She seemed to dry up over winter though.
I highly doubt she is pregnant just because I dont think the people leasing her would breed her behind my back..but you never know. When I bought her, the sellers failed to mention that they had had her AI-ed multiple times and the vet said she "didnt take" (turns out she did).
So I guess my two questions are:
1) Do mares who have had foals in the past continue to produce milk even when not bred?
2) Is it possible for a freshly gelded colt to be able to impregnate a mare? I know its a silly question, but I heard someone say they could (doesn't seem logical to me though)
I feel stupid posting this, but I am not the best with judging pregnancies. I thought one mare was pregnant (I bought her "bred"), but she was just fat. I thought this mare was fat, but she turned out to be pregnant (bought her bred too).